South University NSG5003 Week 1 Study Guide A+ work
Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which statement best describes the cellular function of metabolic absorption?
a. Cells can produce proteins. c. Cells can take in and use nutrients.
b. Cells can secrete digestive enzymes. d. Cells can synthesize fats.
2. Most of a cell’s genetic information, including RNA and DNA, is contained in the:
a. Mitochondria c. Nucleolus
b. Ribosome d. Lysosome
3. Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction?
a. Lysosomes c. Ribosomes
b. Peroxisomes d. Oxyhydrosomes
4. Which cell component is capable of cellular autodigestion when it is released during cell injury?
a. Ribosome c. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
b. Golgi complex d. Lysosomes
5. What is the sequence of steps in the development of a digestive enzyme by the pancreas cells from the initial transcription to the release from the cell?
a. The enzyme is transcribed from DNA by RNA in the nucleus, proceeds to the ribosome for synthesis, and is transported in a secretory vesicle to the cell membrane.
b. The enzyme is transcribed from RNA by DNA in the nucleus, proceeds to the lysosome for synthesis, and is transported in an encapsulated membrane to the cell membrane.
c. The enzyme is transcribed by the mitochondria in the nucleus, proceeds to the ribosome for synthesis, and is transported in a cytoskeleton to the cell membrane.
d. The enzyme is transcribed from DNA by RNA in the nucleus, proceeds to the Golgi complex for synthesis, and is transported in a cytosol to the cell membrane.
6. During which phase of the cell cycle is DNA synthesized?
a. G1 c. G2
b. S d. M
7. What organic compound facilitates transportation across cell membranes by acting as receptors, transport channels for electrolytes, and enzymes to drive active pumps?
a. Lipids c. Proteins
b. Proteases d. Carbohydrates
8. Understanding the various steps of proteolytic cascades, such as caspase-mediated apoptosis and complement cascades, may be useful in designing drug therapy for which human diseases?
a. Cardiac and vascular disorders
b. Autoimmune and malignant disorders
c. Gastrointestinal and renal disorders
d. Endocrine and gastrointestinal disorders
9. Which structure prevents water-soluble molecules from entering cells across the plasma membrane?
a. Carbohydrate chains c. Membrane channel proteins
b. Glycoprotein channels d. Lipid bilayer
10. The fluid mosaic model explains:
a. How a cell membrane functions
b. Why our bodies appear to be solid
c. How tissue is differentiated
d. How fluid moves between the intracellular and extracellular compartments
11. Which form of cell communication is used to communicate within the cell itself and with other cells in direct physical contact?
a. Protein channel (gap junction)
b. Plasma membrane–bound signaling molecules (involving receptors)
c. Hormone secretion such as neurotransmitters
d. Extracellular chemical messengers such as ligands
12. Which mode of chemical signaling uses blood to transport communication to cells some distance away?
a. Paracrine c. Neurotransmitter
b. Autocrine d. Hormonal
13. Which mode of chemical signaling uses local chemical mediators that are quickly taken up, destroyed, or immobilized?
a. Paracrine c. Neurotransmitter
b. Autocrine d. Hormone
14. Neurotransmitters affect the postsynaptic membrane by binding to:
a. Lipids c. Amphipathic lipids
b. Ribosomes d. Receptors
15. How do cells receive communication from the extracellular fluid surrounding them?
a. Protein channel (gap junction)
b. Plasma membrane–bound signaling molecules (involving receptors)
c. Hormone secretion such as neurotransmitters
d. Chemical messengers such as ligands
16. When a second message is necessary for extracellular communication to be activated, it is provided by which one?
a. Guanosine triphosphate (GTP) c. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
b. Adenosine monophosphate (AMP) d. Guanosine diphosphate (GDP)
17. Under anaerobic conditions, what process provides energy for the cell?
a. Oxidative phosphorylation c. Lactolysis
b. Glycolysis d. Passive transport
18. What is the mechanism by which the energy produced from carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids is transferred to adenosine triphosphate (ATP)?
a. Anaerobic glycolysis c. Oxidative phosphorylation
b. Oxidative cellular metabolism d. Tricarboxylic acid phosphorylation
19. Passive transport is best described with which statement?
a. Being driven by osmosis, hydrostatic pressure, and diffusion
b. Involving receptors that can bind with substances being transported
c. Being capable of transporting macromolecules
d. Requiring energy generated by the cell
20. Active transport occurs across which type of membranes?
a. Membranes that have a higher concentration of the solute on the outside of the cell
b. Membranes that are semipermeable to water and small electrically uncharged molecules
c. Membranes that have receptors that are capable of binding with the substances to be transported
d. Membranes that have a cell membrane that is hydrophobic rather than hydrophilic
21. Which method of transport uses transmembrane proteins with receptors with a high degree of specificity for the substance being transported?
a. Active c. Transmembranous
b. Mediated d. Passive
22. The movement of fluid across the arterial end of capillary membranes into the interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary is an example of which fluid movement process?
a. Hydrostatic pressure c. Diffusion
b. Osmosis d. Active transport
23. Why is osmolality preferred over osmolarity as the measurement of osmotic activity in the clinical assessment of individuals?
a. Plasma contains sodium and chloride, which influence the volume of solution.
b. Volume affects perfusion more than the weight of solutes.
c. More of the weight of plasma is influenced by solutes, such as protein and glucose, rather than by water.
d. Osmotic activity depends on the concentration of solutes present in plasma, such as proteins and glucose.
24. A patient who has diarrhea receives a 3% saline solution intravenously to replace the sodium and chloride lost in the stool. What effect will this fluid replacement have on cells?
a. Become hydrated c. Shrink
b. Swell or burst d. Divide
25. The transport of glucose from the blood to the cell is accomplished by which process?
a. Active-mediated transport (active transport)
b. Active diffusion
c. Passive osmosis
d. Passive-mediated transport (facilitated diffusion)
26. Potassium and sodium are transported across plasma membranes by:
a. Passive electrolyte channels
b. Coupled channels
c. Adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase) enzyme
d. Diffusion
27. What occurs during exocytosis?
a. Macromolecules can be secreted across eukaryotic cell membranes.
b. All substances are secreted into the cellular matrix.
c. No repairs in the plasma membrane can take place.
d. Solute molecules flow freely into and out of the cell.
28. Why is it possible for potassium to diffuse easily into and out of cells?
a. Potassium has a greater concentration in the intracellular fluid (ICF).
b. Sodium has a greater concentration in the extracellular fluid (ECF).
c. The resting plasma membrane is more permeable to potassium.
d. An excess of anions are inside the cell.
29. The cellular uptake of the nutrient cholesterol depends on which process?
a. Receptor-mediated exocytosis c. Receptor-mediated endocytosis
b. Antiport system d. Passive transport
30. What causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential to initiate an action potential?
a. Potassium gates open, and potassium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive.
b. Sodium gates open, and sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive.
c. Sodium gates close, allowing potassium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative.
d. Potassium gates close, allowing sodium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative.
31. The action of platelet-derived growth factor is to stimulate the production of which cells?
a. Platelets c. Connective tissue cells
b. Epidermal cells d. Fibroblast cells
32. The role of cytokines in cell reproduction is that they:
a. Provide growth factor for tissue growth and development.
b. Block progress of cell reproduction through the cell cycle.
c. Restrain cell growth and development.
d. Provide nutrients for cell growth and development.
33. What is the process of cellular reproduction?
a. The process often takes months or years to complete.
b. Cellular reproduction typically has a short interphase.
c. Two diploid cells, called daughter cells, have been formed.
d. The process involves the interaction of male and female cells.
34. Which statement is true about eukaryotic cells?
a. They lack distinct nucleus.
b. They contain compartments called organelles.
c. They lack an encasing nuclear membrane.
d. They are smaller than the typical prokaryote cell.
35. Which statement is true about phagocytosis?
a. Phagocytosis is an example of exocytosis.
b. Phagocytosis is dependent on small vesicles.
c. Phagocytosis involves the ingestion of bacteria.
d. Phagocytosis focuses on solute molecules.
36. A muscle cell possesses which specialized function?
a. Movement c. Secretion
b. Conductivity d. Respiration
37. When a mucous gland cell creates a new substance from previously absorbed material, this process is known as which specialized cellular function?
a. Excretion c. Reproduction
b. Metabolic absorption d. Secretion
38. All cells are capable of what process?
a. Excretion c. Metabolic absorption
b. Movement d. Continuous division
Chapter 2: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which type of cell adaptation occurs when normal columnar ciliated epithelial cells of the bronchial lining have been replaced by stratified squamous epithelial cells?
a. Hyperplasia c. Dysplasia
b. Metaplasia d. Anaplasia
2. The loss of the adenosine triphosphate (ATP) during ischemia causes cells to:
a. Shrink because of the influx of calcium (Ca).
b. Shrink because of the influx of potassium chloride (KCl).
c. Swell because of the influx of sodium chloride (NaCl).
d. Swell because of the influx of nitric oxide (NO).
3. The mammary glands enlarge during pregnancy primarily as a consequence of hormonal:
a. Atrophy c. Anaplasia
b. Hyperplasia d. Dysplasia
4. Free radicals play a major role in the initiation and progression of which diseases?
a. Cardiovascular diseases such as hypertension and ischemic heart disease
b. Renal diseases such as acute tubular necrosis and glomerulonephritis
c. Gastrointestinal diseases such as peptic ulcer disease and Crohn disease
d. Muscular disease such as muscular dystrophy and fibromyalgia
5. Free radicals cause cell damage by:
a. Stealing the cell’s oxygen to stabilize the electron, thus causing hypoxia
b. Stimulating the release of lysosomal enzymes that digest the cell membranes
c. Transferring one of its charged, stabilized atoms to the cell membrane, which causes lysis
d. Giving up an electron, which causes injury to the chemical bonds of the cell membrane
6. What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?
a. Enzymatic digestion halts DNA synthesis.
b. Influx of calcium ions halts ATP production.
c. Edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production.
d. Potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure.
7. What is a consequence of leakage of lysosomal enzymes during chemical injury?
a. Enzymatic digestion of the nucleus and nucleolus occurs, halting DNA synthesis.
b. Influx of potassium ions into the mitochondria occurs, halting the ATP production.
c. Edema of the Golgi body occurs, preventing the transport of proteins out of the cell.
d. Shift of calcium out of the plasma membrane occurs, destroying the cytoskeleton.
8. Lead causes damage within the cell by interfering with the action of:
a. Sodium and chloride c. Calcium
b. Potassium d. ATP
9. Which statement is a description of the characteristics of apoptosis?
a. Programmed cell death of scattered, single cells
b. Characterized by swelling of the nucleus and cytoplasm
c. Unpredictable patterns of cell death
d. Results in benign malignancies
10. Lead poisoning affects the nervous system by:
a. Interfering with the function of neurotransmitters
b. Inhibiting the production of myelin around nerves
c. Increasing the resting membrane potential
d. Altering the transport of potassium into the nerves
11. Carbon monoxide causes tissue damage by:
a. Competing with carbon dioxide so that it cannot be excreted
b. Binding to hemoglobin so that it cannot carry oxygen
c. Destroying the chemical bonds of hemoglobin so it cannot carry oxygen
d. Removing iron from hemoglobin so it cannot carry oxygen
12. Acute alcoholism mainly affects which body system?
a. Hepatic c. Renal
b. Gastrointestinal d. Central nervous
13. During cell injury caused by hypoxia, an increase in the osmotic pressure occurs within the cell because:
a. Plasma proteins enter the cell.
b. The adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase)–driven pump is stronger during hypoxia.
c. Sodium chloride enters the cell.
14. Which statement is true regarding the difference between subdural hematoma and epidural hematoma?
a. No difference exists, and these terms may be correctly used interchangeably.
b. A subdural hematoma occurs above the dura, whereas an epidural hematoma occurs under the dura.
c. A subdural hematoma is often the result of shaken baby syndrome, whereas an epidural hematoma rapidly forms as a result of a skull fracture.
d. A subdural hematoma usually forms from bleeding within the skull, such as an aneurysm eruption, whereas an epidural hematoma occurs from trauma outside the skull, such as a blunt force trauma.
15. What physiologic change occurs during heat exhaustion?
a. Hemoconcentration occurs because of the loss of salt and water.
b. Cramping of voluntary muscles occurs as a result of salt loss.
c. Thermoregulation fails because of high core temperatures.
d. Subcutaneous layers are damaged because of high core temperatures.
16. In hypoxic injury, sodium enters the cell and causes swelling because:
a. The cell membrane permeability increases for sodium during periods of hypoxia.
b. ATP is insufficient to maintain the pump that keeps sodium out of the cell.
c. The lactic acid produced by the hypoxia binds with sodium in the cell.
d. Sodium cannot be transported to the cell membrane during hypoxia.
17. What is the most common site of lipid accumulation?
a. Coronary arteries c. Liver
b. Kidneys d. Subcutaneous tissue
18. What mechanisms occur in the liver cells as a result of lipid accumulation?
a. Accumulation of lipids that obstruct the common bile duct, preventing flow of bile from the liver to the gallbladder
b. Increased synthesis of triglycerides from fatty acids and decreased synthesis of apoproteins
c. Increased binding of lipids with apoproteins to form lipoproteins
d. Increased conversion of fatty acids to phospholipids
19. Hemoprotein accumulations are a result of the excessive storage of:
a. Iron, which is transferred from the cells to the bloodstream
b. Hemoglobin, which is transferred from the bloodstream to the cells
c. Albumin, which is transferred from the cells to the bloodstream
d. Amino acids, which are transferred from the cells to the bloodstream
20. Hemosiderosis is a condition that results in the excess of what substance being stored as hemosiderin in cells of many organs and tissues?
a. Hemoglobin c. Iron
b. Ferritin d. Transferrin
21. What is the cause of free calcium in the cytosol that damages cell membranes by uncontrolled enzyme activation?
a. Activation of endonuclease interferes with the binding of calcium to protein.
b. Activation of phospholipases, to which calcium normally binds, degrades the proteins.
c. An influx of phosphate ions competes with calcium for binding to proteins.
d. Depletion of ATP normally pumps calcium from the cell.
22. What two types of hearing loss are associated with noise?
a. Acoustic trauma and noise-induced c. High frequency and acoustic trauma
b. High frequency and low frequency d. Noise-induced and low frequency
23. What type of necrosis results from ischemia of neurons and glial cells?
a. Coagulative c. Caseous
b. Liquefactive d. Gangrene
24. What type of necrosis is often associated with pulmonary tuberculosis?
a. Bacteriologic c. Liquefactive
b. Caseous d. Gangrenous
25. What type of necrosis is associated with wet gangrene?
a. Coagulative c. Caseous
b. Liquefactive d. Gangrene
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