One advantage to utilizing a realistic job preview is that job applicants will self-select into and out of the organization.

Question 1 1 / 1 point

One advantage to utilizing a realistic job preview is that job applicants will self-select into and out of the organization.

True
False
Question 2 1 / 1 point

In most modern organizations, jobs are well established and change little over time.

True
False
Question 3 1 / 1 point

Perfect reliability is impossible to achieve because of the presence of measurement error.

True
False
Question 4 1 / 1 point

When developing employment measures, it is a good idea to give raters some leeway to interpret the meaning of scores as fits the specific situation.

True
False
Question 5 0 / 2 points

What are two of the major strategies for recruiting discussed in this course?

Branded and hypothetical
Internal and cross-territory
Realistic and targeted
Open and fundamental
Question 6 2 / 2 points

Which method of recruiting is most effective at reducing turnover?

Considerate
Branded
Realistic
Targeted
Question 7 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is true of realistic job previews in internal recruiting?

Research suggests they can increase turnover.
They cannot be used effectively for internal selection.
They are even more important than for external recruiting.
They are most necessary for newly created jobs or jobs in new locations.
Question 8 2 / 2 points

Which method of recruiting is designed to be used when an organization is seeking a specific set of KSAOs?

Branded
Realistic
Considerate
Targeted
Question 9 0 / 4 points

List and explain 2 disadvantages to using an Internet-only recruiting strategy.

Question 10

 

Question 10 0 / 4 points

Your boss asks you to explain how criterion-related validity would be used to evaluate an employment test for the job of box office supervisor. Provide a brief explanation to help her understand.

Week 2 Activity: Health Care Issue Impacts

Week 2 Activity: Health Care Issue Impacts

Overview

Emerging and current health care issues nearly always have an impact on health care management practices. In this activity, you will identify and begin to examine a health care issue of your choosing. Your work in this activity sets the foundation for your Week 4 Assignment – Impacts of a Heath Issue on a Care Provider.

Instructions

Download the Week 2 Activity Template and use it to complete this assignment.
Choose one of the following types of health care providers and an issue that significantly impacts its operations, policies, procedures, et cetera.
Provider Type:
  • Nursing Home.
  • Hospital.
  • Out Patient Medical Clinic/Urgent Care Center.
  • Home Health Care.
  • Private Practice Physician(s).
Health Care Issue:
Consider one of the following issues or choose one of your own. Make sure that the issue that you have chosen has a potentially significant impact on your chosen provider type.
  • Outbreaks such as COVID-19, measles, or Ebola.
  • Human trafficking.
  • Aging.
  • Medical tourism.
  • Consumer-directed health care.
  • Assisted suicide.
  • Medical marijuana.
  • Mandatory vaccinations.
  • Abortion.
  • Personalized medicine.
  • Drug abuse.
  • Climate change.
Deliverable
Use the Week 2 Activity Template to state your chosen provider type and introduce its associated issue. Next, briefly describe at least 5 areas where the issue could significantly impact the provider. These include operations, planning, logistics, training, community outreach, et cetera.
Requirements
  • 1/2-1-page double spaced, 12pt Times New Roman font.

Week 4 Assignment – Impacts of a Health Issue on a Care Provider

Week 4 Assignment – Impacts of a Health Issue on a Care Provider

Overview

In your Health Care Issue Impacts activity, you investigated where health care issues can have an impact on a provider type. In this assignment, you will take a deeper dive into these areas of impact to consider actions that providers must take to effectively address the issue.

Scenario

Imagine that you work for a provider who is currently ill-prepared to or unable to serve the population associated with your identified issue. A senior leader in your organization has asked you to prepare a brief for management that highlights the 4 biggest areas of impact to consider as they weigh the options of expanded operations to serve this population.
Areas you might consider, but are not limited to, are:
  • Policies.
  • Staffing.
  • Safety.
  • Staff Training.
  • Facilities.
  • Compliance or Licensing.
  • Community Stakeholders.
  • Others…

Instructions

Consider the scenario above and create a 3-4-page brief for the provider’s leadership in which you do the following:
  1. Justify the priority of your four chosen areas of significant impact. Why are they the most critical?
  2. Describe specific items within each impact area that exemplify the changes or actions that may need to be made. Include support from a credible source. For example: If the issue was epidemic or contagion preparedness, areas of concern for facilities might be sanitation, disinfection, quarantine, decontamination, personal protection equipment (PPE), et cetera.
  3. Analyze one of the 4 areas of consideration and provide the following:
    • Description of the primary stake holders (both internal and external if applicable – regulatory or government entities should be considered).
    • Description of a cultural aspect that should be considered.
    • Recommendation, with justification, for prudent initial management action that should be taken to address the challenge(s) presented.
    • Support assertions with credible sources.
Requirements
  • 3-4-pages double spaced, 12pt Times New Roman font.
  • Include a title and source page (not included in page count).
  • Cite a minimum of 4 resources to support your work.
This course requires the use of Strayer Writing Standards. For assistance and information, please refer to the Strayer Writing Standards link in the left-hand menu of your course. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
The specific course learning outcome associated with this assignment is:
  • Analyze challenges posed by health care issues to a health services organization.

HCM 520 Exam

Question 1 (2 points)

Beginning in 2013, the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services began to release certain Medicare provider charge data for public viewing. The purpose of this action is primarily to increase which of the following in the U.S. health care system?
Question 1 options:
Coverage
Transparency
Quality
Profitability
Question 2 (2 points)
Which of the following are associated with public health, as opposed to health care? Select all that apply.
Question 2 options:
Making sure water supplies are safe
Protecting the environment
Restoring health once an illness has occurred
Ensuring that a community has a safe place for people to be physically active
Keeping people healthy

Question 3 (2 points)

Which of the following sources of health care funding has decreased significantly from its level in 1970 to its level in 2012?
Question 3 options:
Private health insurance
Out of pocket
Medicare
Medicaid
Question 4 (2 points)
According to the University of Wisconsin Population Health Institute, what percentage of ultimate health outcomes are determined primarily by personal health behaviors?
Question 4 options:
20%
40%
50%
30%
Question 5 (2 points)
Which stakeholder in the U.S. health care system is most likely to view the cost of health insurance as a cost of doing business and a major factor affecting profitability?
Question 5 options:
Public policy makers
Consumers
Insurers
Employers
Question 6 (2 points)
Which of the following are defining characteristics of the U.S. health care system? Select all that apply.
Question 6 options:
The dominant role of politicians in running the system
Dysfunctional financing and payment
Outdated technology and lack of new drugs
Tension between the free market and government control
Question 7 (2 points)
Which of the following is the primary desire of consumers as stakeholders in the U.S. health care system?
Question 7 options:
Productivity in the workplace
Social goal of keeping people healthy
Lower costs for health care services
Access to affordable and quality health care

Question 8 (2 points)

In the United States, access to medical care and its associated outcomes depend on which of the following characteristics of the individual? Select all that apply.
Question 8 options:
Race
Citizenship
Medical need
Geographical location
Income level

Question 9 (2 points)

Which U.S. President was instrumental in establishing Medicare and Medicaid as part of his vision for a “Great Society”?
Question 9 options:
Barrack Obama
Lyndon B. Johnson
John F. Kennedy
Harry Truman
Question 10 (2 points)
A Supreme Court decision in 2012 accomplished which of the following related to the Affordable Care Act?
Question 10 options:
Rendered state participation in Medicaid expansion voluntary
Required the law to extend coverage of dependents to those up to 30 years old
Found the individual mandate to be unconstitutional
Disallowed the provision that prevented insurers from denying coverage due to applicants with preexisting conditions
Question 11 (2 points)
Which of the following are initiatives contained in the Affordable Care Act? Select all that apply.
Question 11 options:
Those with private insurance plans are required to drop them and obtain insurance through a government exchange
Nearly all Americans are required to have some form of health insurance or pay a penalty through the tax code
Those with private insurance will have to change doctors
Each state will be encouraged to create an insurance exchange, through which the uninsured will be able to purchase more affordable private coverage
Employers with more than 50 full-time employees will be required to provide coverage to employees or pay a penalty

Qestion 12 (2 points)

In the 19th century, most Americans received health care in what setting?
Question 12 options:
Almshouses
Homes
Hospitals
Physician offices
Question 13 (2 points)
Which U.S. federal organization is specifically responsible for reporting on progress made toward improved health care quality and opportunities for ongoing improvement?
Question 13 options:
National Institutes of Health
Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Food and Drug Administration

Question 14 (2 points)

Which federal program is a collection of 50 state-administered programs, each providing health insurance to low-income state residents, but with differing eligibility rules, benefits, and payment schedules?
Question 14 options:
CHIP
Medicaid
Affordable Care Act
Medicare
Question 15 (2 points)
Public hospitals and health clinics in the U.S. are primarily owned and operated by which of the following?
Question 15 options:
State governments
Federal government
Local governments
Non-profit charities
Question 16 (2 points)
Advocates for pediatricians and children are most likely to be key players in which policy subsystem?
Question 16 options:
Veterans Health Administration
Medicaid
Medicare
Tricare

 

Question 17 (2 points)
The U.S.’s health system can best be described by which of the following?
Question 17 options:
A patchwork of public and private insurance system
A socialized medicine system
A national health system
A national health insurance system
Question 18 (2 points)
A correlation in which there is a steady, predictable change in an outcome that corresponds to a steady change in a factor is which of the following?
Question 18 options:
Gradient
Determinant
Reverse causality
Integrative model
Question 19 (2 points)
Which model homes in on individuals and focuses on the factors that are most immediately linked to the pathophysiology of a person’s disease?
Question 19 options:
Integrative model
Population health model
Medical model
Multiple determinants model
Question 20 (2 points)
Which criteria for payment of health care typically results in wealthier, younger, and healthier individuals paying disproportionately to finance the care of poorer, older, and sicker individuals?
Question 20 options:
Ability-to-pay criteria
Estimated risk
Random selection
Actuarial principles

Question 21 (2 points)

Which of the following countries rely to varying degrees on subnational and local governments to finance health care? Select all that apply.
Question 21 options:
Canada
China
United Kingdom
France
United States
Question 22 (2 points)
Which of the following countries have national health insurance systems, which are modelled after the one designed by Bismarck? Select all that apply.
Question 22 options:
Switzerland
United States
Canada
France
Sweden
Question 23 (2 points)
The fact that an individual smokes would be classified as which type of determinant of health?
Question 23 options:
Health-related behavior
Social and economic environment
Physical environment
Medical care
Question 24 (2 points)
By the end of 2013, about half of physician payments to health care providers in China came from which of the following?
Question 24 options:
Straight salary
Combination of capitation payment and fee-for-service
Capitation payment
Fee-for-service

Question 25 (2 points)

According to Trust for America’s Health, an investment of $10 per person per year in proven community-based programs to increase physical activity, improve nutrition, and prevent smoking and other tobacco use could save the country more than $16 billion annually; this would produce what return for every $1 invested?
Question 25 options:
$3.20
$0.80
$8.40
$5.60
Question 26 (2 points)
A program that seeks to educate children and their parents on the importance of wearing helmets while bicycling is an example of which of the following?
Question 26 options:
Tertiary prevention
Health promotion
Primary prevention
Secondary prevention
Question 27 (2 points)
According to the 2010 County Health Rankings Model, which category of health determinants had the greatest impact on health outcomes?
Question 27 options:
Social and economic factors
Clinical care
Health behaviors
Physical environment
Question 28 (2 points)
What proportion of total U.S. expenditure on health is spent on diseases that are preventable?
Question 28 options:
Two thirds
One third
One fourth
One half
Question 29 (2 points)
Which of the following essential public health services would be considered related to policy development? Select all that apply.
Question 29 options:
Inform, educate, and empower people about health issues.
Enforce laws and regulations that protect health and ensure safety.
Monitor health status to identify community health problems.
Develop policies and plans that support individual and community health efforts.
Mobilize community partnerships to identify and solve health problems.
Question 30 (2 points)
Imagine that you have been placed on a county committee in your home state to make decisions on how to most effectively invest in changes that will improve the overall health of residents of the county. Which of the following would likely be the most effective measure, based on the 2010 County Health Rankings Model?
Question 30 options:
Purchasing a new x-ray machine for the local hospital
Establishing awareness of air quality and its effect on health
Beginning a smoking cessation program
Adding several nurses to the staff of the local health clinic
Question 31 (2 points)
Which of the following are true of public health institutes? Select all that apply.
Question 31 options:
Can advocate for public health programs and funding
May accept private funds
Offer a credible, neutral, third-party voice
Part of state governments
Question 32 (2 points)
Which of the following is a public health, rather than a health care, intervention?
Question 32 options:
Teaching a free seminar at a community health clinic on heart-healthy cooking
Performing balloon angioplasty on a patient with an occluded major artery
Counseling a patient at risk for stroke on signs and symptoms of impending stroke
Taking an EKG of a cardiac patient

Question 33 (2 points)

In 2011, what percentage of adults engaged in at least 75 minutes per week of moderate-to-vigorous aerobic exercise, a proportion that meets Healthy People 2020 guidelines for recommended physical activity among adults?
Question 33 options:
22%
35%
48%
59%
Question 34 (2 points)
Which of the following are factors that have contributed to the growing number of vulnerable populations? Select all that apply.
Question 34 options:
Rise in the number of HIV infections each year
Aging of the Baby Boomers
Increased prevalence of chronic conditions
Reduction in supportive services in low-income communities
Increase in violent crimes

Question 35 (2 points)

An older Hispanic woman has diabetes mellitus and lacks health insurance. Which factor is an example of a health need?
Question 35 options:
Older age
Hispanic ethnicity
Lack of insurance
Diabetes mellitus
Question 36 (2 points)
Which of the following is the best example of a social health need?
Question 36 options:
Bipolar disorder
HIV
Homelessness
Blindness
Question 37 (2 points)
Which model of health behavior change integrates behavioral science with clinical and public health approaches and defines the targets of successful health interventions to be not only individuals but also the powerful social contexts in which the individuals live and work?
Question 37 options:
5 A’s
Social ecological
Stages-of-change
Social marketing
Question 38 (2 points)
Approximately what percentage of American adults are either overweight or obese?
Question 38 options:
70%
60%
40%
50%
Question 39 (2 points)
A neighbor of yours is pregnant and struggles financially to afford healthy food. Which of the following social service programs would be most appropriate to refer her to?
Question 39 options:
Supplemental Security Income
Women, Infants, and Children
Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program
Temporary Assistance for Needy Families
Question 40 (2 points)
Which of the following are examples of “midstream” interventions for behavior change? Select all that apply.
Question 40 options:
Pharmacologic treatments
Worksite seminar on cholesterol
Excise taxes on tobacco products
Nutrition promotion at a local elementary school
Group and individual counseling

Question 41 (4 points)

What makes the health care system so important to life in the United States?
Question 41 options:

Question 42 (4 points)

How does the U.S. compare with other countries in terms of access to services across income groups?
Question 42 options:

Question 43 (4 points)

What are Health Impact Assessments (HIAs) used for?
Question 43 options:

Question 44 (4 points)

What is a vulnerable population? What factors lead someone to be categorized as vulnerable?
Question 44 options:
Question 45 (4 points)
Discuss some of the environmental and economic changes affecting behavior on both sides of the energy balance question that have contributed to the dramatic rise in the prevalence of overweight and obesity among youth and adults over the past several decades.

Why is it reasonable to remove a passenger from a stopped vehicle when there is no suspicion the passenger may be involved in a crime?

Question 1 (20 points)

Why is it reasonable to remove a passenger from a stopped vehicle when there is no suspicion the passenger may be involved in a crime?

Question 2 (20 points)

The author of your textbook contends the Bill of Rights was not aimed at crippling law enforcement’s power to protect the values of property and person security.  What does the author believe that the Fourth Amendment was aimed at limiting?

Question 3 (20 points)

According to the author it is important to note that there are two kinds of restraints on freedom of movement that have no Fourth Amendment significance.  Identify and discuss the two kinds

Question 4 (20 points)

Compare the trespass doctrine with the privacy doctrine in defining Fourth Amendment searches.

Question 5 (20 points)

Compare the definition of reasonable suspicion with probable cause. What two interests does probable cause balance?

Information systems in health care have traditionally been used to manage which of the following?

QUESTION 1

  1. Information systems in health care have traditionally been used to manage which of the following?

    a.

    Physicians.

    b.

    Pharmacy expenses.

    c.

    Clinical staff.

    d.

    Business operations.

    e.

    Nurses.

4 points   

QUESTION 2

  1. Which of the following is a potential benefit in having clinical data automated and able to exchange with other care settings?

    a.

    Lower cost to the patient.

    b.

    Reduction in the number of repeat tests needed.

    c.

    Ability to more quickly identify relevant information about the patient (allergies, etc.).

    d.

    Ability to offer insurance to all Americans.

    e.

    Both reduction in the number of repeat tests needed and the ability to more quickly identify relevant information about the patient.

    f.

    All these are correct.

    g.

    None of these is correct.

4 points   

QUESTION 3

  1. PHI, NOPP, and HIPAA all address which of the following?

    a.

    The cost of health care in the United States.

    b.

    Government regulation around health care organizations.

    c.

    The lack of EMR adoption in the United States.

    d.

    The privacy and security of patient information.

    e.

    New quality measures established through ARRA.

4 points   

QUESTION 4

  1. What methods are defined by the HITECH portion of ARRA to increase adoption of EMRs in hospital and physician settings?

    a.

    Financial incentives for early adoption.

    b.

    Financial incentives for finding more cost effective EMR solutions.

    c.

    Penalties for late adoption.

    d.

    Penalties for selecting less cost effective EMR solutions.

    e.

    Both financial incentives for early adoption and penalties for late adoption.

4 points   

QUESTION 5

  1. The purposes of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act include all of the following, except:

    a.

    Protecting personal health information.

    b.

    Maintaining privacy of health records.

    c.

    Requiring business associates to comply with the law.

    d.

    Providing health care coverage to more people.

    e.

    Requiring severe financial penalties for violations.

4 points   

QUESTION 6

  1. Current changes in health information systems include which of the following?

    a.

    Producing artificial body parts with computer printers.

    b.

    Wearable devices to monitor patient status.

    c.

    Use of telehealth and telemedicine.

    d.

    Microbots for treatment and medication.

    e.

    All of these are correct.

    f.

    None of these is correct.

4 points   

QUESTION 7

  1. Health care managers must be able to achieve which of the following with regard to health information systems and technology?

    a.

    Develop competences to effectively and efficiently manage the HIT function.

    b.

    Assist staff by providing resources to maintain state-of-the-art systems.

    c.

    Provide adequate training on EHRs.

    d.

    Assure that patient health information is kept confidential.

    e.

    All of these are correct.

4 points   

QUESTION 8

  1. By definition, which of the following is true about an Electronic Medical Record (EMR)?

    a.

    It is accessible only by a patient’s doctor.

    b.

    It is considered a legal record.

    c.

    It is accessible only by a patient’s doctor and is considered a legal record.

    d.

    It is accessible by anyone.

    e.

    All of these are correct.

    f.

    None of these is correct.

4 points   

QUESTION 9

  1. Which of the following are the three primary reasons that EMR adoption and optimization is not higher in the United States?

    a.

    An inability to prove value, design, and lack of standards.

    b.

    High cost, inability to prove value, and low administrative support.

    c.

    High cost, user unfriendliness, and slow progress developing standards defining complex clinical information.

    d.

    Inability to prove value, high cost, and user unfriendliness.

    e.

    High cost, user unfriendliness, and low administrative support.

4 points   

QUESTION 10

  1. Which of the following is not a contemporary leadership model?

    a.

    Situational approach.

    b.

    Authentic leadership.

    c.

    Resilient leadership.

    d.

    Servant leadership.

4 points   

QUESTION 11

  1. Under which leadership domain would the competencies motivating and negotiation be placed?

    a.

    Functional and Technical.

    b.

    Self-Development and Self-Understanding.

    c.

    Interpersonal.

    d.

    Organizational.

4 points   

QUESTION 12

  1. Which of the following is not a type of leader/follower that is needed to produce an interdependent leadership system?

    a.

    Strategic.

    b.

    Operational.

    c.

    Network.

    d.

    Transformational.

4 points   

QUESTION 13

  1. Which of the following statements is not true about the “Great Man” theory?

    a.

    It discourages anyone who does not have specific traits from aspiring to a leadership position.

    b.

    The traits necessary for effective leaders are inherent in the person.

    c.

    Behavior is an important component in determining what makes a good leader.

    d.

    It supports the notion that a good leader has charisma.

4 points   

QUESTION 14

  1. Which one of the EI (emotional intelligence) dimensions is defined by having a propensity for reflection, an ability to adapt to changes, and the power to say “no” to impulsive urges?

    a.

    Self-motivation.

    b.

    Self-regulation.

    c.

    Social skills.

    d.

    Empathy.

4 points   

QUESTION 15

  1. Which of the following is not a benefit of an effective health care team?

    a.

    Improved coordination of care.

    b.

    Less-efficient use of health care services.

    c.

    Increased job satisfaction among team members.

    d.

    Higher patient satisfaction.

    e.

    All of these are correct.

4 points   

QUESTION 16

  1. Which of the following is NOT a result of encouraging teamwork in an HSO?

    a.

    Improved communication.

    b.

    Increased productivity.

    c.

    Decreased job satisfaction among team members.

    d.

    Decreased nursing turnover.

4 points   

QUESTION 17

  1. Approximately how much does nursing turnover cost?

    a.

    $200,000 per lost nurse.

    b.

    $88,000 per lost nurse.

    c.

    $2,000 per lost nurse.

    d.

    $100 per lost nurse.

    e.

    Nothing per lost nurse, they are a dime a dozen.

4 points   

QUESTION 18

  1. Which of the following questions you should ask when you are assigned to a team?

    a.

    Who is in charge?

    b.

    Do we have a scope of work?

    c.

    What are our timelines?

    d.

    What is my role?

    e.

    What are the goals of the team?

    f.

    All of these are correct.

4 points   

QUESTION 19

  1. Which of the following is a critical question to ask when assessing potential team members?

    a.

    Do they have the knowledge, skills, and disposition to do the job at hand?

    b.

    Do they bring good snacks to the meetings?

    c.

    Do you know them?

    d.

    Does your boss know their bosses?

4 points   

QUESTION 20

  1. The MBTI cannot be used to:

    a.

    Determine leadership strength.

    b.

    Predict turnover.

    c.

    Assess followership.

    d.

    Evaluate introversion.

    e.

    Estimate extroversion.

Sequoia Furniture Company’s sales over the past three months, half of which are for cash, were as follows:

Sequoia Furniture Company’s sales over the past three months, half of which are for cash, were as follows:

March April May
$422,000 $672,000 $542,000

a. Assume that Sequoia’s collection period is 60 days. What would be its cash receipts in May? What would be its accounts receivable balance at the end of May?

b. Now assume that Sequoia’s collection period is 45 days. What would be its cash receipts in May? What would be its accounts receivable balance at the end of May?

 

If the collection period is 60 days, May cash receipts from March sales will equal half of March sales or $211,000. In addition the company will receive cash from half of May sales, or $271,000. The total is $482,000. The May accounts receivable balance should be the last 60 days’ worth of credit sales. May credit sales were $271,000 and April’s were $336,000, thus the accounts receivable balance would be $607,000.

 

b.

With a 45-day collection period, cash collected on May 1 is from credit sales made in mid-March, and collections on May 31 are from credit sales made in mid-April. Therefore, cash receipts from credit sales are from the period mid-March through mid-April, or (422,000/2 + 672,000/2)/2 = $273,500. Adding sales for cash of $271,000, the total is $544,500. The accounts receivable balance would be May’s credit sales and half of April’s credit sales, or 271,000 + 336,000/2 = $439,000.

 

In 2016, Natural Selection, a nationwide computer dating service, had $504 million of assets and $202 million of liabilities.

In 2016, Natural Selection, a nationwide computer dating service, had $504 million of assets and $202 million of liabilities. Earnings before interest and taxes were $122 million, interest expense was $27.5 million, the tax rate was 40 percent, principal repayment requirements were $24.2 million, and annual dividends were 25 cents per share on 22 million shares outstanding.

 

a. Calculate the following for Natural Selection: (Round your answers to 2 decimal places.)

b. What percentage decline in earnings before interest and taxes could Natural Selection have sustained before failing to cover: (Round your answers to 1 decimal place.)

a.

  1. i. Liabilities-to-equity ratio = 202/302 = 0.67
  2. ii. Times interest earned = EBIT/interest expense = 122/27.5 = 4.44
  3. iii. Times burden covered = EBIT/[interest + principal repayment/(1 − tax rate)] = 122/[27.5 + 24.2/(1 − 0.4)] = 1.80

b.

  1. i. To fail to cover the existing interest payments, the times interest earned ratio has to fall below one.= (4.44 − 1)/4.44 = 77.5%, or (122 − 27.5)/122 = 77.5%
  2. ii. To fail to cover the interest and sinking fund payment, the times burden covered ratio has to fall to below one.= (1.80 − 1)/1.80 = 44.4%, or [122 − (27.5 + 24.2/(1 − 0.4))]/122 = 44.4% (The difference is due to rounding.)
  3. iii. To fail to cover interest, principal, and dividend payments we must further subtract the impact of dividends on the EBIT.= [122 − (27.5 + ((24.2 + 0.25 × 22)/(1 − 0.4))]/122 = (122 − 77)/122 = 36.9%

Ch. 1 Quiz

A company sells used equipment with a book value of $100,000 for $250,000 cash. How would this transaction affect the company’s balance sheet?

Cash rises $250,000; accounts receivable falls $100,000; goodwill rises $150,000.

Equity rises $250,000; net plant and equipment falls $250,000.

Cash rises $250,000; net plant and equipment falls $100,000; equity rises $150,000. (Correct)

Cash rises $250,000; net plant and equipment falls $250,000.

The book value of a firm is

generally greater than the market value when fixed assets are included.

based on historical cost. (Correct)

more of a financial than an accounting valuation.

equivalent to the firm’s market value provided that the firm has some fixed assets.

adjusted to the market value whenever the market value exceeds the stated book value.

Which one of the following is a source of cash?

increase in inventory

decrease in accounts payable

decrease in common stock

decrease in long-term debt

decrease in accounts receivable (correct)

JM Case Inc. has a market value of $5 million with 500,000 shares outstanding. The book value of its equity is $1,750,000. What is JM Case’s book value per share? $3.50

Which one of the following is a source of cash?

increase in accounts receivable

decrease in common stock

decrease in notes payable

increase in accounts payable Correct

increase in inventory

Depreciation expense

increases net fixed assets as shown on the balance sheet.

decreases current assets, net income, and operating cash flows.

reduces both taxes and net income. Correct

is a noncash item that increases net income.

A balance sheet reports the value of a firm’s assets, liabilities, and equity

over any period of time.

at the end of the year.

over an annual period.

at any point in time. (correct

Which of the following is NOT a major category on the cash flow statement?

Cash flows from financing activities

Cash flows from investing activities

Cash flows from selling activities Correct

Cash flows from operating activities

Which one of the following is a use of cash?

increase in long-term debt

increase in common stock

decrease in accounts receivable

increase in inventory Correct

increase in notes payable

Below are summary cash flow statements for three roughly equal-sized companies.

below are summary cash flow statements for three roughly equal-sized companies.

 

($ millions)
A B C
Net cash flows from operating activities (308) (308) 316
Net cash used in investing activities (908) (38) (98)
Net cash from financing activities 1,280 226 (248)
Cash balance at beginning of year 158 158 158

 

a. Calculate each company’s cash balance at the end of the year. (Enter your answers in millions.)

Answers: 222,38,128